Quinner;185072 wrotePokerStars Game #27143998740: Tournament #156267900, $2.00+$0.20 Hold'em No Limit - Match Round I, Level I (10/20) - 2009/04/16 3:08:07 ET
Table '156267900 1' 2-max Seat #2 is the button
Seat 1: SMIRA13 (1170 in chips)
Seat 2: Quinner777 (1830 in chips)
Quinner777: posts small blind 10
SMIRA13: posts big blind 20
*** HOLE CARDS ***
Dealt to Quinner777 [Kc 5c]
Quinner777: raises 40 to 60
SMIRA13: calls 40
*** FLOP *** [3d Jc 2c]
SMIRA13: checks
Quinner777: bets 80
SMIRA13: raises 180 to 260
Quinner777: raises 340 to 600
SMIRA13: raises 510 to 1110 and is all-in
Quinner777: calls 510
*** TURN *** [3d Jc 2c] [Ad]
*** RIVER *** [3d Jc 2c Ad] [Js]
*** SHOW DOWN ***
SMIRA13: shows [Qs Qh] (two pair, Queens and Jacks)
Quinner777: shows [Kc 5c] (a pair of Jacks)
SMIRA13 collected 2340 from pot
*** SUMMARY ***
Total pot 2340 | Rake 0
Board [3d Jc 2c Ad Js]
Seat 1: SMIRA13 (big blind) showed [Qs Qh] and won (2340) with two pair, Queens and Jacks
Seat 2: Quinner777 (button) (small blind) showed [Kc 5c] and lost with a pair of Jacks

Maybe someone can help me with the math here. My thinking in this hand is that villain has two pair. Giving me a 33% chance to win if she does. Before I make the final call of the all in there is approximately 1700 in the pot already, and I have to call about 500 more. Therefore I'm good with this call right?? Am I doing correct math here?? As it turns out she had an overpair and we were flipping coins anyway.

I think you're asking the wrong question.
Unless you think they have Checkraisebluff in their book, I hate the raise after getting checkraised.